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When ISPs connect with each other via peering or through transit who among the two owns the ip address between them?

To explain my question further, When ISPs peer, the links between them must be allocated ip addresses. I think they would be global addresses. How would ISPs decide on this?

Also what would be the general architecture at ISPs interconnection?

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When ISPs peer on e.g. an internet exchange then the internet exchange provides the addresses for the peering LANs. When ISPs set up a private interconnection then one of them provides the addresses. It doesn't matter which one.

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  • How much redundancy do they maintain between each other. Would it be a full mesh?. I know it varies widely, but what is the general pracatise?
    – pvkc
    Commented Sep 12, 2015 at 18:06
  • What do you mean with "full mesh"? It's usually just a single link per interconnect. Possibly multiple interconnects if both parties have multiple mutual locations. And yes: "it depends" Commented Sep 12, 2015 at 18:07
  • Will the ISPs pay to IXP for using their ip space?. Obviously they have to pay for maintaining the connection, but would their be charges applied exclusively for using their ip range?
    – pvkc
    Commented Sep 12, 2015 at 18:09
  • No, you usually don't pay for an address at an IXP. You pay per connection to the IXP, and each connection allows connecting one router which gets one IPv4 address and one IPv6 address. Commented Sep 12, 2015 at 18:11
  • If it is a single link, wouldn't you loose peering in case of link failure? I always thought there would be multiple links for a peering
    – pvkc
    Commented Sep 12, 2015 at 18:13

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