We have an appliance that always uses the IPv6 gateway's MAC address as the link layer destination address for all its outgoing IPv6 packets, even when the receivers IPv6 address is on the same subnet. The network is IPv6 over Ethernet.
Appliance: 2001:DB8::2342/64, MAC 00:11:11:11:11:11 Gateway: 2001:DB8::1/64, MAC 00:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA Client: 2001:DB8::4711/64, MAC: 00:22:22:22:22:22
When ever the appliance tries to send a packet to the client, it looks like so:
Source IP address: 2001:DB8::2342, Source MAC address: 00:11:11:11:11:11 Dest IP address: 2001:DB8::4711, Dest MAC address: 00:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
Source IP address: 2001:DB8::2342, Source MAC address: 00:11:11:11:11:11 Dest IP address: 2001:DB8::4711, Dest MAC address: 00:22:22:22:22:22
Unfortunately we don't have access to the appliance routing table and our gateway is dropping packets which should be delivered to the same subnet they originate from. Therefore the appliance's connectivity to its local subnet is effectively unidirectional.
We are in correspondence with the maker of the misbehaving appliance, but the support engineer for the device is pretty unaware of how IPv6 works.
My questions are:
- Is it a violation to any standard if a host sends every IPv6 packet to the gateway, even if the recipient is on the same subnet? If so, which standards (RFC, BCP, IEEE, whatever) are relevant?
- Is the gateway misbehaving dropping those packets instead of sending them out to the interface they came in?