Once an interviewer asked me, "Can we use OSPF without area 0?" I was not able to answer at that time.

Later on, I searched, but I did not not find a satisfactory answer for this question. So, can we really use OSPF without Area 0?

  • Possible duplicate of Why must all areas connect to an Area 0 backbone in OSPF? – JFL Mar 2 '17 at 10:57
  • It not duplicate, I read related questions. my question is pity simple can we use OSPF without area 0? – Nishad Morey Mar 2 '17 at 11:29
  • Isn't it obvious from the linked question? If you have multiple area the answer is no. If you have a single area, I suppose it can be something else than area 0 but there's no point. – JFL Mar 2 '17 at 11:59
  • Did you get the job ? – psniffer Mar 2 '17 at 19:46
  • I have a same question as well. I said "It's a backbone area and mandatory in OSPF protocol"...I didn't get the job thou :) – Will Mar 2 '17 at 20:27

There is only one way to use OSPF without an Area 0, and that is to use OSPF with a single area. If you only have one OSPF area, you can number it any way you like, but if you have even two areas, you must have an Area 0.

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If not using area 0 or backbone area then it means that single area ospf is being implemented here..

What is single area ospf read it here:- http://learnwow.blogspot.in/2017/10/ospf-in-networking-top-standout-characteristics.html

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No OSPF should have a backbone area because it acts as a hub to transmit routing information about other areas in the network.

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