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I am new in here and I hope to find my answer.

I'm working on sub ISP company which provide internet and ipvpn services to customers through infrastructure of main ISP.

We have a central data center which a lot of configuration in there and we have a router connected direct to ISP for internet and another router connected direct to ISP for DDA links which basically are l2vpn links for customers. so when a customer call us asking for internet link, we first ask main isp to connect the customer to our data center specfically to DDA router then by our own network setup we deliver the internet to the customer.

during the implementation of L2vpn with the main ISP, he provide us an ISP vlan to configure in our DDA router for the link between our company and main ISP. Also, he provide us a customer vlan to configure in the customer edge router between main isp and customer.

Please click on this link https://ufile.io/e0n7d to download an example of L2vpn setup.

My question now that I am really thinking how the main ISP is doing the L2vpn of connecting the customer to our DDA router, which technique he is using?

I know it's not any kind of mpls because they offer mpls l2 with higher price.

I'm looking forward to hear positive feedback from you.

Thanksenter image description here

  • Did any answer help you? If so, you should accept the answer so that the question doesn't keep popping up forever, looking for an answer. Alternatively, you could provide and accept your own answer. – Ron Maupin Feb 21 '18 at 17:42
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It's kind of strange to differentiate price for the service based on technology rather than SLA. Nevertheless, the best way to find out certainly is to ask your ISP, because there're plenty of techniques to do so, such as:

  1. End to end VLAN or bridged connection through router
  2. L2TPv3
  3. VXLAN
  4. OTV
  5. Older technologies such as Frame Relay
  6. more and more.
  • yes. it's little strange. you know as we are also an ISP we can't ask how exactly the setup of their network. all we know is they give us an isp vlan for isp side and customer vlan for customer side. we provide the ip /30 for both ends. – Asem Moqbel Sep 11 '17 at 20:53
  • I am thinking how could one subnet configured on two vlans work. becasue ISP vlan and customer vlan are different and the ip for both end same subnet of /30. so how could this work? – Asem Moqbel Sep 12 '17 at 3:56
  • That could easily be done with VLAN rewrite for example. – ar_ Sep 12 '17 at 14:22
  • Thanks my friend for the reply. but could the vlan rewrite works for the L2vpn even if the isp side vlan and customer vlan are different. could you elaborate it for me please. – Asem Moqbel Sep 12 '17 at 18:16
  • It could easily work with mpls for sure. It could work if they're stretching vlan through their network. I think it could work with l2tpv3 but I'm not quite sure. – ar_ Sep 12 '17 at 18:30

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