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I have a very simple topology, where 4 routers use IPV6 and RIP, there aren't problems and all devices have connectivity. The issue is if I add another router this time using IPV4 for clients.

I tried to add a tunnel but maybe I'm doing it wrong:

ipv6 unicast-routing
interface tunnel0
ipv6 address 2000::1/64
ipv6 rip Net1 enable
tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0
tunnel destination 10.0.0.1
tunnel mode ipv6ip
no shut

net topology

Do I need to double stack everything or is it possible to solve with a tunnel?

  • You need to edit the question to give us the full configurations of the routers. Also, are you trying to get IPv4 to talk to IPv6? – Ron Maupin Oct 19 '18 at 20:36
  • Well that's exactly what I'm trying to do... So I'm feeling that is impossible to ping from a PC1 IPv4 to a PC0 IPv6? I thought that was the tunnel job. – Cliff Oct 19 '18 at 20:51
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    No, IPv4 and IPv6 are two completely separate, incompatible protocols. There are methods to to what you seem to want to do, but I doubt you are going to be able to do that on Packet Tracer. Tunneling IPv6 in IPv4 is done to connect IPv6 hosts that are separated by an IPv4 network, but a tunnel has two ends. – Ron Maupin Oct 19 '18 at 20:57
  • Understood. Thanks I'll try to do another thing. – Cliff Oct 19 '18 at 21:23
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    @Cown, OK, it's done. – Ron Maupin Oct 21 '18 at 15:03
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So I'm feeling that is impossible to ping from a PC1 IPv4 to a PC0 IPv6? I thought that was the tunnel job.

No, IPv4 and IPv6 are two completely separate, incompatible protocols. There are methods to to what you seem to want to do, but I doubt you are going to be able to do that on Packet Tracer. Tunneling IPv6 in IPv4 is done to connect IPv6 hosts that are separated by an IPv4 network, or tunneling IPv4 in IPv6 is done to connect IPv4 hosts that are separated by an IPv6 network, but a tunnel has two ends.

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