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We can assign one public IP address to a network, and within the network, distribute the private IP addresses which can come from one of the three reserved ranges:

  • – (16,777,216 hosts)
  • – (1,048,576 hosts)
  • – (65,536 hosts)

Is it correct that in the network, we can assign one private IP address (e.g. to a "subnetwork", and within that "subnetwork", we can distribute private IP addresses in range – to the hosts in the "subnetwork", and in the "subnetwork" and in the original network can coexist and refer to different things?


marked as duplicate by Zac67, Ron Maupin Feb 11 at 21:18

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No. IP addresses are unique. If you’re using private addresses, they will be unique within your organization.

  • Inside your organization, if there is a router, can the hosts under that router reuse the privates IP addresses in your organization? I think yes. – Tim Feb 11 at 20:22
  • 2
    Absolutely not. Think of addresses like telephone numbers. You can’t have two people with the same number. – Ron Trunk Feb 11 at 20:25
  • isn't it that a router create a new scope for reusing private IP addresses? – Tim Feb 11 at 20:39
  • 1
    No. A router forwards packets from one network to another. If two devices have the same address you won’t be able to tell them apart. A host with the address is the same host regardless of the subnet mask. – Ron Trunk Feb 11 at 20:58
  • "A router forwards packets from one network to another. " At your home, when you uses a router and modem to connect to your ISP, does the router create a new network inside your home? When you use a second router to connect to the router, does the second router create a new network, in which you can reuse all the private IP addresses again, in the sense that they overlap with those IP addresses assigned by the first router? – Tim Feb 11 at 21:05

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