I have set up OpenVPN on pfSense, and it works almost the way I want it.

The client connects to the pfSense box from the WAN, is assigned a tunnel IP and can communicate with all the networks on the pfSense since I set up a push directive.

What I want is now that the clients on the LAN ( can also communicate with the client's tunnel IP, which does not work.

The pfSense (Gateway) can!

The clients in the LAN only get a default route (to the pfSense box) so I assumed that pfSense - since it knows a more specific route to the Tunnel network - will route traffic towards the OpenVPN gateway. But that doesn't seem to happen. What am I missing? Spent way too much time to this already but still I'm curious.

  • You need to give us more information. For example, a good network description or diagram, the network device models, and the network device configurations. You can refer to the Network Engineering Question Checklist for guidance, then edit your question. – Ron Maupin Feb 16 at 20:11

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