I am currently studying the textbook Computer Networking -- A Top-Down Approach (7th Edition) by Kurose and Ross. In a chapter on Home Access: DSL, Cable, FTTH, Dial-Up, and Satellite, the authors describe dial-up as follows:
Dial-up access over traditional phone lines is based on the same model as DSL -- a home modem connects over a phone line to a modem in the ISP.
Does this mean that, on either side of the connection (the home network and the ISP), there is a modem involved? So the connection goes from a modem at the home network, through the telephone line, and connects to a modem at the ISP?