This might be a stupid question but I'm new to this. I am studying a class about basics of networking and I don't really understand one question that we have.
We need to a divide the given IPv4 address range into subnets.
Now, we have this formation:
R1 R3 | \/ | | /\ | R2 R4 | | S1 S2--S3 | | | PCs PCs PCs
I know that we will have a subnet under R2 and R4. Giving us 2 subnets, that makes sense, since we need to give an IP address to every PC and it should have some order. And the switches don't use IP addresses to send frames from what I have understood but they use MAC addresses that they build.
From what I have understood we will also make a new subnet for the different connections between the routers too? Why is that?
Since thinking about it R1 and R3 are connected to the one router R2. Why would we make 2 different subnets for R2 even though it is just one router. Having 2 different subnets just seems like a waste of space for me. I guess it will be necessary when R2 is sending to R3 or R1 I guess? I might have answered my own question...
Now, I might have understood this wrongly since the assistant professor didn't mention it... so a friend of mine told me that this is how it apparently works and he just knew it with no logic to explain why. I might not have really made the question that clear since I'm quite confused myself lol. Though I have tried to make it clear.