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If you had two geographically dispersed LANs with public IPs that are in a different subnet range to each other, (one is 154.30.24.x/24, and the other is 134.64.9.x/24) if they were physically or logically connected together could they be part of the same private network (using NAT)?

What I'm trying to get at is how is a WAN actually defined?

Does the subnet range define the private network?

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  • Strange reason to close this q with ref to "What is the purpose of a VPN?".
    – MatsK
    Aug 17 '21 at 13:25
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You are mixing LAN/WAN and L2/L3 in your question.

Wikipedia does this defenition of WAN/LAN

A local area network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers within a limited area such as a residence, school, laboratory, university campus or office building.

A wide area network (WAN) is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographic area for the primary purpose of computer networking.

And then you try to use a Subnet as definition of a LAN, well that's not relevant. There is ways to have the same Subnet on multiple locations in a WAN and that can be achieved by tunneling or bridging.

From Wikipedia

A subnetwork or subnet is a logical subdivision of an IP network.

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You can logically connect two separate networks using a VPN link. An IPsec or SSL link creates a secure tunnel (overlay network) across an untrusted network using a different addressing scheme (private addressing inside the tunnel, public addressing outside).

The meaning of "WAN" depends on context, ranging from long-distance link technology (in the range of kilometers) to meaning "untrusted, public zone".

Directly connecting two separate networks means they need to share some kind of addressing scheme, usually both using private (but separate) addresses from RFC 1918.

Using L2 VPN (bridged), both networks could use a shared subnet, but using a routed link (L3) is usually preferred for better performance and control.

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