Sorry if this is an XY problem -- struggling to understand a few concepts.
To put it simply, I just don't understand when iBGP is needed. Been reading the CCNP Enterprise - Core and the example provided is confusing me.
For start, it's mentioned that "R2 could form an iBGP session directly with R4, but R3 would not know where to route traffic from AS65100 or AS65300 when traffic from either AS reaches R3, because R3 would not have the appropriate route forwarding information for the destination traffic" and I just don't get this.
- Is OSPF required between R2 and R3? (Why is it not iBGP? -- Is it just for the sake of example?)
- Is EIGRP required between R3 and R4? (Again, why is it not iBGP? -- Is it just for the sake of example?)
- How does the relation between R2 and R4 matter in this case? I imagine it's related to the BGP path attributes, but want more assurance.
- Why can't the information coming from AS65100 or AS65300 be useful to R3 in this current design?
- When they mention "redistributing the BGP table [...]", does that imply eBGP?
- Ancillary to point listed immediately above, what is the protocol used between {R1 and R2} and {R4 and R5}?
- What is the quote unquote solve for a situation like this? Sorry if that's too broad. The book mentions that "establishing iBGP sessions between all the same routers in a full mesh allows for proper forwarding between autonomous systems", but is there any way to make this situation work without using strictly iBGP in AS65200?
Hopefully the scope of this is clear enough!