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Timeline for Propagate VLAN through VPN (IPsec)?

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Feb 28, 2016 at 19:02 vote accept char_name
Nov 5, 2015 at 16:49 comment added char_name Yes. I will try it latter with packet tracer. Thank you.
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:55 comment added Ron Maupin The router does have to encapsulate the layer-3 packet in a layer-2 frame, and, if there is a trunk from the router to the switch, it includes the VLAN tag (for non-native VLANs). That is the point of putting the encapsulation dot1Q <vlan> command on the router interface.
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:44 comment added char_name I understand very well your point. Ok. So packet will outcome without any tag to inner side of our site from router. And how then our switch decide to which vlan this packet should go? I do not think this router can tag frames in fucntion of ip source/destination. Or can he?
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:34 comment added Ron Maupin A VLAN is a layer-2 domain which ends at a layer-3 boundary, so no, the users at two different sites are not on the same VLAN. When the users are separated by routers, they are on different VLANs, no matter if the VLAN numbers are the same. At that point layer-2 plays no part in the end-to-end communication, the layer-3 packet does.
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:30 comment added char_name But our normal users on same vlan (on distinct sites, vlan 10).
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:28 comment added Ron Maupin There is no solution except to make sure the VLAN has the destination subnet. That is how routing works. Your packet will be put on the VLAN where the destination subnet is. It makes no sense to put it on a different VLAN.
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:26 comment added char_name Thank you for answer. But please read my question. I understand the problem. So i ask for any solutions or just any tips. Thank you again.
Nov 5, 2015 at 15:19 history answered Ron Maupin CC BY-SA 3.0