I don't think this question has been asked here before because I've searched for an answer but couldn't find it:

Assuming we have a VPN connection (site-to-site or client-to-site) from site A to site B - if a machine in site A connects to site B, is it necessary that it becomes a part of the site B network? i.e. can it access the same local resources like shared drives, printers, etc that local machines in site B can?

If so, how does this work? Nothing that I know about VPN covers this aspect of it. VPN is supposed to provide you a safe/secure route from site A to site B through the internet so that you don't need to use a leased line to transfer data securely. Where does local machines in Site A getting the same network level access as local machines in Site B come in? Don't see any VPN protocols having anything in their specifications/implementation to support this? How does this happen?

Also, do local machines in Site A get a site B IP address assigned to them like site B local machines do?

I don't think this question has been asked here before because I've searched for an answer but couldn't find it:

Assuming we have a VPN connection (site-to-site or client-to-site) from site A to site B - if a machine in site A connects to site B, is it necessary that it becomes a part of the site B network, e.g. can it access the same local resources like shared drives, printers, etc that local machines in site B can?

If so, how does this work? Nothing that I know about VPN covers this aspect of it. VPN is supposed to provide you a safe/secure route from site A to site B through the Internet, so that you don't need to use a leased line to transfer data securely. Where does the idea of local machines in Site A having the same network level access as local machines in Site B come in?

I don't see any VPN protocols having anything in their specifications/implementation to support this. How does this happen?

Also, do local machines in Site A get a site B IP address assigned to them like site B local machines do?

I don't think this question has been asked here before because I've searched for an answer but couldn't find it:

Assuming we have a VPN connection (site-to-site or client-to-site) from site A to site B - if a machine in site A connects to site B, is it necessary that it becomes a part of the site B network? i.e. can it access the same local resources like shared drives, printers, etc that local machines in site B can?

If so, how does this work? Nothing that I know about VPN covers this aspect of it. VPN is supposed to provide you a safe/secure route from site A to site B through the internet so that you don't need to use a leased line to transfer data securely. Where does local machines in Site A getting the same network level access as local machines in Site B come in? Don't see any VPN protocols having anything in their definition/implementation to support this? How does this happen?

Also, do local machines in Site A get a site B IP address assigned to them like site B local machines do?

I don't think this question has been asked here before because I've searched for an answer but couldn't find it:

Assuming we have a VPN connection (site-to-site or client-to-site) from site A to site B - if a machine in site A connects to site B, is it necessary that it becomes a part of the site B network? i.e. can it access the same local resources like shared drives, printers, etc that local machines in site B can?

If so, how does this work? Nothing that I know about VPN covers this aspect of it. VPN is supposed to provide you a safe/secure route from site A to site B through the internet so that you don't need to use a leased line to transfer data securely. Where does local machines in Site A getting the same network level access as local machines in Site B come in? Don't see any VPN protocols having anything in their specifications/implementation to support this? How does this happen?

Also, do local machines in Site A get a site B IP address assigned to them like site B local machines do?